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common law wife question of next of kin please

ProfilePosted byOptionsPost Date

Germaine

Germaine Report 20 Aug 2007 19:41

If someone in USA in the 1930/40's had died. Would they have been described as having no relatives if they had either been divorced or only living as man and wife. (no children). Hope that makes sense. Germaine x

☼ Orangeblossom ☼ - Tracy

☼ Orangeblossom ☼ - Tracy Report 20 Aug 2007 21:01

Probably depends on the State. They all have different laws lol

Germaine

Germaine Report 20 Aug 2007 22:16

Ah Thanks Tracy. It was Florida. This family are a pain in the won't say it. :-)) Germaine x

MaryfromItaly

MaryfromItaly Report 20 Aug 2007 22:51

Very likely. There's no such thing as a 'common law wife' in England, and I imagine it's the same in the US, although you'd need to ask somebody who's familiar with the law of Florida.

Germaine

Germaine Report 20 Aug 2007 23:30

Thanks Mary Think that will be the best thing to do. I have this gut feeling they never did marry. Which would account for the details in his obituary. Very strange up. They both died without relatives. So it is so sad. Germaine x